Sample IREX exam questions

The following questions are a sampling of actual questions from the examination data base used to generate CASA IREX examinations. These questions may or may not appear in your examination, however questions that do appear will question the syllabus items in a generally similar style of question format as those attached.

Each question is preceded by a set of six figure numbers (eg 900081), these are unique CASA identifiers. The next set of numbers indicates the syllabus reference for which that question relates.(eg 2.1)

Questions that indicate a need to refer to a particular ERC, or Approach or Departure procedure, may be rendered out of date by expired documentation. Eg there may now be a number or identifier for a route that differs to that in the sample question, however the question format remains valid.

Questions that are asked in CASA examinations are always based on material that is current at the time of the sitting.

Time allowed for examination
3 hours 30 minutes

Material supplied with examination
Answer Sheet
Scribble Pad

Permissible material for examination
(to be supplied by candidate)
CAR,
CAO Parts 20 to 95.2,
CAAP No: 234-1(0), and
AIP complete which includes -
* AIP Book (including AIP SUP)
* En Route Supplement Australia (ERSA)
* Departure and Approach Procedures (East and West)
* Terminal Area Charts (TAC) 1 to 4
* En Route Charts (ERC) (Low) 1 to 8
* Planning Chart (AUS PCA)

For rules, procedures, and aeronautical information including chart interpretation, the examination questions are based solely on the above-permitted publications.

As provided under CAR 233(1)(h), on a candidate's own preference, Jeppesen Airway Manual may be used as examination reference in place of CASA's AIP complete, but if any differences between CASA and Jeppesen documents result in the selection of incorrect answer(s), CASA will NOT accept this consequence as a basis for re-mark.

NO OTHER REFERENCE MATERIAL IS PERMITTED

Other IREX information
Preparation of examination papers requires extensive lead time, and therefore it is not possible to take into account information from unscheduled documents, such as NOTAM. However, if a candidate feels that a question has been affected by NOTAM this should be noted in the comment sheet supplied.

The AIP SUP is an integral component of the AIP complete and is issued in accordance with a published schedule. Therefore it may be examined.

Commonly used abbreviations (not in AIP)

Pass percentage
The pass percentage for the written IREX shall be 'not less than 70%' of the total possible marks. However, a candidate with less than 100% achievement will be required to present the critique comments (issued with the result slip) to the Approved Testing Officer (ATO) prior to the flight test. The ATO will orally test the candidate on the areas listed in the critique. As a requirement for proceeding with the flight test, a candidate must achieve 100% in the oral examination.

IMPORTANT
The following page contains examination information that pertains to most of the questions, save where a particular question states or indicates otherwise.

IREX examination aircraft data

STANDARD equipment fit: Fully equipped for IFR flight including -
* Two VOR/ILS with glideslopes and marker beacons
* Two fixed-card ADF
* 1 x DME
* 1 x (IFR approved) GPS
* Mode C transponder
* 3 axes autopilot, but no flight director nor approach-capable system
* Two VHF communication
* Single HF communication
* Weather radar (30 kW power output rating)
* Life jackets
* Life raft

Unless otherwise stated in the question, assume all navigation aids and aircraft equipment are serviceable, GPS RAIM is available, and you are qualified to fly as PIC, instrument procedures based on these nav-aids (in any combination)

The aircraft does NOT have: oxygen, pressurisation, de-icing/anti-icing, auto-feathering

Operations
Unless otherwise stated in the question, the examination relates to CHTR flight operating to IFR procedures.

Fuel calculations
Company fuel policy is based on CAAP 234-1(0)
All fuel calculations will be in minutes
* do not separately plan climbs and descents
* do not add any time allowance for taxi, instrument approaches and overshoots

Sample IREX questions

900081  2.1
For a single-stage unscheduled flight along routes, where valid area forecasts are not readily available, the published prior notice required for a pre-flight forecast is -

900042  2.3
An aerodrome surface air temperature is + 9 degrees C and the cloudbase is 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation. If the temperature lapse rate is 3°C per 1000 ft in clear air and 1.5°C in cloud, the difference in height between the freezing level in clear air to that in cloud would be closest to -

900043  2.4(a)
An aircraft is flying at A070 in a layer of Stratocumulus cloud with light turbulence. OAT is minus 5 degrees C: What type of airframe icing may be expected, if at all?

900201  2.4(b)
A pilot is committed to flying within 4000 metres of a large thunderstorm. Select the flightpath giving the least risk of encountering hail.

900202  2.4(c)
A thunderstorm is active approximately 10 km from the destination aerodrome. During landing, which hazard is most likely to be encountered?

900203  2.4(d)
Where in thunderstorms would turbulence normally be most severe?

900204  2.7
From which of the following sources would a pilot directly obtained a VOLMET message?

900042  2.8(a)
ERC L6 refers.
You plan a flight from WAVE HILL, NT (YWAV) (S1724 E13107) to DARWIN, NT (YPDN) at A080. ETD is 1430 UTC. What is the rated coverage of the DARWIN NDB (DN) that you may expect?

900004  2.8(b)
A pilot cruising in CTA and using the NDB for track guidance discovers that he has inadvertently diverged from the authorised track by 3 degrees. What action should the pilot take?

900066  2.9(a)
You are flying northward over the sea, by day. The coastline running parallel to your track is 35 nm to your right, and a NDB station located 30 nm inland has a rated coverage of:
"Range 80 (HN50) OW 110 (HN 65)"
Your ADF fixed-card indication shows that the NDB station is on a relative bearing of 045. What is the actual relative bearing of this station from your aircraft?

900205  2.9(b)
When flying within the rated coverage of the aid, under what conditions should you always treat cockpit ADF indications with caution?

900207  2.10(a)
Indication of VOR scalloping is evidenced by -

900521  2.10(b)
You are tracking inbound on the VOR 360 radial. The OBS setting has been set to provide command indications. Which cockpit VOR indications would inform you that you have achieved station passage?

900045  2.11(a)
An aircraft tracks out from overhead an NDB on a constant heading.
Planned track ....... 030(M)
Heading ............... 040(M)
Backbearing ........ 185 Relative.
What is the track error (in degrees)?

900264  2.11(b)
ERC L3 refers.
To maintain track on W359 while flying from TAMWORTH, NSW (YSTW) to MUDGEE (YMDG) (S3234 E14936), you allow for 7 degrees right drift. No. 1 ADF is on QUIRINDI (QDI) NDB, and No. 2 ADF on SCONE NDB (SCO). At JODEX which of the following respective ADFs bearings will be indicated?

900003  2.11(c)
From overhead an NDB an aircraft maintains a constant heading of 094M. Your planned track is 091M, and the relative bearing to the NDB is 188 degrees. What drift (in degrees) has been experienced since passing overhead the NDB?

900530  2.11(d)
An aircraft situated to the south-east of an NDB is flying in a westward direction. If the aircraft is maintaining a track of 270M by allowing for 10 degrees right drift, what is the relative bearing that would indicate the aircraft is positioned south of the station?

900019  2.11(e)
An aircraft is situated to the east of an NDB and is required to intercept a track of 030M from that NDB. If the aircraft takes up a HDG of 330M, what is the relative bearing that would indicate the aircraft has intercepted the required track?

900303  2.12
You are flying the PINJA ONE ARRIVAL into PERTH, WA (YPPH) for runway 06. You will be required to join the 9 DME arc at GOSSI for a RWY 06 VOR/DME approach. Which VOR OBS setting, TO/FROM and CDI indications will correctly advise you of a 5 degrees lead for arrival at GOSSI?

900526  2.13
You are tracking inbound on the VOR 145 radial. What OBS setting should be set to provide command indications, and what would be the correct TO/FROM indication?

900336  2.14
ERC L4 refers.
You are flying at A100 by day from WALGETT, NSW (YWLG) (S3002 E14808) to CHARLEVILLE, QLD (YBCV), via W463.Additional chart information:
BEETI - SGE ..... track 080M, distance 80 nm
BEETI - CMU ..... track 261M, distance 78 nm
If CMU VOR is NOT serviceable during the period of your flight, which of the following pair of neighbouring beacons will permit you to fix your position at BEETI?

900210  2.15
Your 330M track passes a VOR station 60 nm on your left. You allow for 10 degrees left drift in your HDG. When your position is abeam the station, what OBS setting, giving a TO indication, has to be selected to centre the CDI?

900524  2.16
ERC L4 refers.
You are flying at A070 from MOUNT ISA (MA) (S2040 E13929) on J64 to CAIRNS. You departed MA maintaining a HDG of 051M, with the VOR OBS selected to 051. The cockpit VOR OBI has a scale of a target (small inner) circle with 4 dots on each side of it.At 30 DME MA, the CDI shows a deflection one dot to the left of the target circle. What is your new heading to fly directly from your present position to intercept track at TASHA?

900262  2.17
ERC L1 refers.
If the NDB at STRAHAN, TAS (YSRN) is not serviceable between 0100 UTC and 0300 UTC, by which combinations of neighbouring radio navigation aids would you fix your position 10,000 feet overhead this airfield?

900006  2.18
During ground testing of an aircraft's radar equipment (which has a power output rating in excess of 30 kW), without the use of an approved beam attenuating device, what is the minimum distance permitted between an energised rotating antenna and refuelling equipment?

900450  2.19.a(iii)/b(ii)
You are tasked on an IFR flight, by night, from point ALPHA to point BRAVO, 320 nm apart. You plan for A080 and an average groundspeed of 180 knots. The aircraft GPS is unserviceable.
Point ALPHA is an unlicensed aerodrome without any navigation aid. Point BRAVO has an NDB. There are no other navigation aids enroute, and IMC may be expected. With regards to the requirements of track keeping, what rated coverage (by night) for the NDB at point BRAVO would you assess as the minimum for the flight to proceed safely?

900279  2.19(a)(i)
A pilot holding a command instrument rating has recorded 10 hours of instrument flight time, including several instrument approaches, within the last 30 days as PIC in two-pilot operations. The same pilot has also recorded 3 hours of instrument flight time in commercial single pilot operations.
What is the MINIMUM additional recent experience as PIC, if any, that is required for the pilot to act as PIC of a single pilot IFR flight?

900354  2.19(a)(i)
Which of the following recency requirements is the MINIMUM that will permit you to fly in IMC, as pilot in command, all published instrument procedures at CAIRNS, QLD (YBCS)?

900408  2.19(a)(iii)/(b)
You are flying in G airspace but the track takes you near CTA. Flight condition is IMC, and your only means of navigation is by NDB. To ensure your intended flight path does not violate CTA, you should plan to avoid the relevant boundary by a minimum of -

900274  2.19(a)(iii)/2.20(d)(ii)
ERC L8 refers.
Your flight is from PERTH, WA (YPPH) to MEEKATHARRA, WA (YMEK) via W181 - J157 at A090. Identify all positions on the route that must be reported.

900002  2.19(a)(viii)/2.20(a)
ERC L2 refers.
You are flying from COOMA, NSW (YCOM) (S3621 E14858) to MELBOURNE, VIC (YMML) along W747 at A100. As you have not yet received airways clearance to enter MELBOURNE CTA, contact ATC directly when abeam MANSFIELD NDB. What is the primary frequency on which you will make this clearance request?

900216  2.19(b)(v)
ERC L4 refers.
You are planning a flight, by day, from CHARLEVILLE, QLD (YBCV) (S2625 E14616) to MITCHELL, QLD (YMIT), 90 nm to the east along W369. ETA is 0400 UTC. No TAF is available for YMIT, an unlicensed aerodrome. Area Forecast valid for your flight indicates the following conditions:
WIND: 2000 ft L/V 5000 ft 170/10 7000 ft 190/15
CLOUDS: BKN CUSC 4500/9000
VISIBILITY: 8 KM
Is an alternate aerodrome required, and why?

900341  2.19(b)(i)/2.20
You are engaged in an IFR CHTR flight carrying passengers. With accurate QNH set, what must the altimeters pre-flight check demonstrate in order for the aircraft to depart on the initial route sector?

900022  2.19(b)(i/v)/2.2
The TAF for your destination aerodrome (YBXX) is given as:
TAF YBXX 290030Z 0214 25010KT 9999 BKN010
T 15 13 10 07 Q 1018 1020 1020 1019
The nominated alternate aerodrome (YBYY) has a TAF as follows:
TAF YBYY 290045Z 0214 33015KT CAVOK
T 15 14 11 07 Q 1017 1020 1021 1019
The flight time to the planned destination requires 1 hour 15 minutes, and from the destination to the nominated alternate, another 45 minutes. What is the latest ETD for which these TAFs will be valid?

900232  2.19(b)(ii)
ERC L1 refers.
You plan a trip from HOBART, TAS (YMHB) (S4251 E14732) to WYNYARD (YWYY) via W233. The area forecast valid for your flight includes BKN050/120 and a freezing level of 7300 feet. At what level should you plan the flight?

900023  2.19(b)(ix)
The meteorological minima for take-off on RWY 21 at PERTH, WA (YPPH) in an IFR category A single-engine aircraft should be at least above -

900054  2.19(b)(v)/(vi)
An aerodrome within a primary CTR has operational requirements for 30 minutes weather holding and 30 minutes traffic holding. You are overhead the aerodrome for landing, with 30 minutes holding fuel in addition to fixed reserve. The nearest suitable alternate (which does not require any holding) is 30 minutes away. ATC advises you that an approach to the aerodrome is currently not available for the next 30 minutes due to traffic. What action should you take?

900014  2.19(b)(vi)
A flight is estimated to arrive at its destination at 0145 UTC. The destination TAF includes the following:
"PROB30 INTER 0204 2000 -TS"
If the pilot does not wish to nominate an alternate, how much additional holding time, if any, is required?

900044  2.19(b)(vii)
A NGT IFR CHTR operation is considered. Assume that weather and navigation aid requirements are not operationally limiting, and no responsible person will be in attendance at the airfields. Airfields as numbered below are considered for their suitability as alternate(s) (disregard geographical dispersion):
'1' - CASINO, NSW (YCAS).
'2' - CLERMONT, QLD (YCMT).
'3' - CANBERRA, ACT (YSCB).
'4' - COBAR, NSW (YCBA)
'5' - CAMDEN (YSCN)
Which of these airfields would be suitable as alternate(s)?

900016  2.20
ERC L2 refers.
You are flying at A090 from MILDURA, VIC (YMIA) (S3414 E14205) via CANTY to MELBOURNE, VIC (YMML). At what distance from MELBOURNE will you be entering its controlled airspace?

900516  2.20(a)
For an IFR aircraft, in which classes of airspace will enroute level(s) be assigned by ATC?

900212  2.20(b)
You have received a SID clearance for your departure from CANBERRA, ACT (YSCB) to SYDNEY, NSW (YSSY), but no discrete SSR transponder code had been assigned. On entering the runway for take off you ensure that your transponder is selected to -

900531  2.20(c)
The latest position where an IFR Category flight departing EMERALD, QLD (YEML) must make a departure report is -

900037  2.20(c)(i)
You are departing PERTH, WA (YPPH) from RWY 06 for the east on the SPUDO ONE DEPARTURE. To conform to procedure the minimum rate of climb your aircraft must initially achieve with a GS of 100 kt, is closest to -

900048  2.20(c)(i)
For a departure from BRISBANE, QLD (YBBN) you have been cleared via the CORAL TWO SID. Your VOR/DME is correctly tuned to BN. After take-off from RWY 01, which BN radial would you initially track on?

900242  2.20(c)(v)
You are flying from CANBERRA (YSCB) to SYDNEY (YSSY) at A090 in cloud. You received and acknowledged the clearance:
"ENTER SYDNEY CTA CRUISE 9000, CLEARANCE LIMIT BINDOOK".
Approaching BINDOOK (BIK) your aircraft suffers total radio failure. You set the transponder to the appropriate code, carry out blind transmissions at the required positions, and listen out on ATIS and relevant navigation aids. In the absence of any ATC instruction via the navigation aids transmissions, which procedure should you now fly?

900007  2.20(d)(i)
Two aircraft are descending on the same track in CTA and have been advised that they are subject to a 'step descent' to 2,000 ft and 4,000 ft respectively. The pilot of the higher aircraft reports approaching his initial assigned altitude of 8000 ft. The lower aircraft has just vacated 7000 ft. What reporting action, if any, should the pilot of the lower aircraft take at this point?

900114  2.20(d)(i)
TAC-2 refers.
You are flying at A100 from CANBERRA, ACT (YSCB) to COROWA, NSW (YCOR) via HOLBROOK. You encounter significant icing conditions when 30 DME outbound. Commencing a descent, you turn back to YSCB. The aircraft DME is unserviceable, and GPS RAIM is now unavailable. What is the lowest altitude to which you may descend in IMC at this point?

900473  2.20(e)(i)
TAC-4 refers.
You are tracking from PINGELLY (S3232 E11705) to PERTH, WA (YPPH), and have been cleared to conduct a DME Arrival. To what altitude may you descend in IMC at 24 DME?

900432  2.20(e)(i)
You are conducting the NDB approach at KOWANYAMA, QLD (YKOW), by night. At completion of the reversal procedure you sighted the airfield. When is the earliest point at which you may discontinue the procedure and track to join the circuit for a landing on RWY 30?

900362  2.20(e)(i)/2.24
ERC L2 refers.
You are flying at night from WARRACKNABEAL, VIC (YWKB) (S3619 E14225) to HOPETOUN, VIC (YHPN) (approximately 37 nm NNW of YWKB). Nearing YHPN you sight and identify the aerodrome lighting for Runway 01. GPS RAIM is available. What distance from the aerodrome would be the earliest that you may descend below the route LSALT?

900297  2.20(e)(i)/2.25
You are conducting a missed approach from the ECHUCA, VIC (YECH) NDB approach in your Category B aircraft. What is the maximum IAS you may fly at?

900532  2.20(e)(i)/2.26
For a category B aircraft, which of the following dimensions determines the circling area for the RWY 21 NDB approach at PORT MACQUARIE, NSW (YPMQ)?

900027  2.20(e)(ii)
An IFR category flight is approaching an aerodrome at night and is authorised to conduct a visual approach. Radar vector is not available. Aerodrome lighting is listed in the ERSA as L1, L4. The pilot shall not descend below the IFR LSALT or the DME steps until within -

900215  2.20(e)(iii)
You are in cloud and below the published LSALT under radar vectoring by APPROACH. Just after receiving an instruction to take up a particular HDG you lose radio communication with APPROACH. Which of the following actions should you take?

900249  2.20(e)(v)
Flying the RWY 27 NDB approach into WYNYARD, TAS (YWYY) in IMC, you become visual at 1150 feet. The visibility is 2.5 km. Which of the following is correct and permissible if your intention is to land on RWY 27 as soon as possible?

900104  2.20(e)(vi)
In VMC conditions in a GAAP CTR, which of the following classes of traffic will be provided with separation service by ATC?

900025  2.20(e)(vii)
The last portion of the VHF aerodrome lighting (PAL) illumination cycle will be indicated by the flashing of -

900340  2.20(e)(i)
At position SPUDO on the PERTH, WA (YPPH) AVONN THREE ARRIVAL in IMC, which procedure should you fly to join finals for Runway 21?

900248  2.20(e)(i)
You fly inbound to TAMWORTH, NSW (YSTW) from the north-east. ATC clears you as follows:
"CLEARED INBOUND ON THE 017 RADIAL, MAKE VOR/DME APPROACH FOR RWY 30R, REPORT INBOUND".
Your intention is to proceed on the outbound leg of the approach procedure as soon as possible. How would you fly the procedure when you reach the TW VOR?

900183  2.21
In what class of aeroplanes, and under what conditions if any, does a command (single-engine aeroplane) instrument rating authorises the holder to act as pilot-in-command on IFR flights?

900147  2.23
What minimum rate of climb (ft/min) must an aircraft achieve, with a GS of 90 kt, to ensure that it has the minimum designed obstacle clearance during a published missed approach?

900394  2.24
You conduct the RWY 29 VOR/DME approach procedure at DERBY/CURTIN, WA YCIN), by day. Breaking cloud at 1050 feet you sighted the airfield, but are positioned too high to land straight in. You assess that descending below the MDA will position your aircraft for a landing on the other runway. What is the minimum visibility along your intended flight path that you must maintain?

900299  2.25
You are conducting the KUNUNURRA, WA (YPKU) NDB procedure in IMC. At the commencement of the final segment of the approach, and at 1900 feet, the ADF indicator fluctuates +/- 15 degrees continuously about the expected bearing to the station. The "ident" of the aid continues to be satisfactory. In these circumstances which of the following approach procedures should you adopt?

900351  2.20(e)(i)
You are flying the EAST SALE, VIC (YMES) Runway 22 ILS/DME approach via the the reversal procedure. The aircraft DME is tuned to 109.5 MHZ. Where (and, where applicable, by what DME distance) in the procedure, must you establish your IAS to a maximum of 130 knots?